UPSC Prelims 2026 GS Paper 1 Solutions: Q26

UPSC Prelims 2026 GS Paper 1 Solved Paper

Following our exhaustive analysis of the first 25 questions, this segment tackles Questions 26 to 50 from the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2026 – General Studies Paper 1.

The 2026 paper marks a significant evolution in exam design. The Union Public Service Commission has integrated dynamic current affairs with foundational concepts across Geography, Environment, and Science & Technology. This segment requires a high degree of precision, a solid grasp of spatial geography, and an understanding of emerging technologies. Let’s dive straight into the definitive UPSC GS Paper 1 solutions for Part 2.

UPSC Prelims 2026 Question-by-Question Solutions & Deep-Dive Explanations

Question 26

Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct?

Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States.
Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States.
Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State.

Options:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Correct Answer: (c)
Subject Category: Geography (Indian Map & Political Boundaries)
Additional Analysis: Factual & Map-based Map Check
Crucial Target: The question specifically asks for statements that are NOT correct.

Why the Correct Option is Right:

Statement 2 is incorrect: West Bengal, not Rajasthan, shares the longest international border among all Indian States. West Bengal shares an extensive border stretching over 2,217 km with Bangladesh. Rajasthan shares approximately 1,048 km with Pakistan.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Sikkim is bounded by West Bengal alone on its domestic front, but it is not the only state with this distinction. Meghalaya also shares its domestic boundary with exactly one Indian state (Assam).

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Statement 1 is correct: Uttar Pradesh shares its borders with 8 individual states (Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and Bihar) and 1 Union Territory (Delhi), making it the state with the highest number of internal neighbors. Because Statement 1 is accurate, options (a) and (b) are eliminated.

UPSC Learning Insight:

UPSC frequently frames boundary questions using absolute terms like “only” to create traps. Thorough map work must look past the obvious choices to spot parallel geographic scenarios like the Sikkim-Meghalaya boundary structures.

Question 27

Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct?

It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds.
It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites.
It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes.

Options:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Correct Answer: (a)
Subject Category: Environment & Biodiversity (Wildlife Conservation)
Additional Analysis: Conceptual & Current Affairs-linked

Why the Correct Option is Right:

The migration of the Amur Falcon (Falco amurensis) to the Doyang reservoir area in Pangti village, Nagaland, is a well-known success story in community conservation. Local communities moved away from widespread hunting to establish strict protective patrols. This community effort transformed a hazardous flyway into a safe global stopover sanctuary.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Statement 2 is incorrect: Satellite radio tags and tracking telemetry are observational tools used by human researchers to chart routes; they do not send guidance or piloting signals to the birds themselves.
Statement 3 is incorrect: These falcons are strict long-distance migrants. They stay in India briefly to feed on insects before crossing the Arabian Sea to Southern Africa. They never adopt permanent residency in the Indian subcontinent.

UPSC Learning Insight:

Be careful not to mistake monitoring tools (like tracking tech) for the natural biological drivers of animal behavior. This is a common logical trap used to test basic scientific literacy.

Question 28

Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry?

It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products.
It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets.

Options:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (c)
Subject Category: Economy & Geography (Agro-Industries & Certifications)
Additional Analysis: Current Affairs-based (Eco-Labels)

Why the Correct Option is Right:

The Oeko-Tex Standard 100 is an independent, global testing and certification system for raw, semi-finished, and finished textile products. When Indian Eri Silk (widely called “Ahimsa Silk” because it is harvested without killing the silkworm pupae) secured this certification, it verified that the fabric was free from toxic chemical residues. This certification helps exporters access high-end, eco-conscious global markets that demand verified sustainability.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Options (a) and (b) are incorrect: They provide an incomplete answer. Both assertions are complementary; the validation of international safety standards (Statement 2) is exactly what allows exporters to compete in high-end markets (Statement 1).

UPSC Learning Insight:

Global trade standards and eco-certifications for traditional Indian goods (like khadi, organic tea, or indigenous silks) are high-priority topics for UPSC. They directly connect rural development with global trade frameworks.

Question 29

Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)?

Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas
Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions
Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS)

Options:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Correct Answer: (d)
Subject Category: Government Schemes / Agriculture Economics
Additional Analysis: Conceptual Policy Objective

Why the Correct Option is Right:

The core strategy of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) component within NMSA is the promotion of Integrated Farming Systems (IFS). IFS helps farmers diversify by combining traditional crop cultivation with complementary activities like horticulture, livestock breeding, fishery, and agro-forestry. This diversification maximizes land use efficiency, restores soil health, and minimizes economic risks caused by changing weather patterns.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Monoculture increases vulnerability to pests and climate shocks. RAD actively discourages it in favor of multi-cropping and integrated systems.
Statement 2 is incorrect: RAD is designed specifically for rainfed landscapes, not fields with established irrigation infrastructure. Furthermore, water-intensive crops like rice are generally ill-suited for vulnerable rainfed zones.

UPSC Learning Insight:

Look for basic contradictions within an option. A sustainable agriculture initiative will rarely, if ever, advocate for monoculture or promote water-heavy crops in vulnerable rainfed areas.

Question 30

Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean?

Bahrain
Syria
Qatar
Egypt

Options:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 3 and 4

Correct Answer: (b)
Subject Category: International Geography (Choke Points & Maritime Map)
Additional Analysis: Spatial Location Analysis

Why the Correct Option is Right:

The Strait of Hormuz is a critical maritime chokepoint connecting the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and the open Indian Ocean. Bahrain (1) and Qatar (3) are situated within the Persian Gulf basin. Consequently, any commercial shipping vessel departing from their ports must pass through this strait to reach broader international waters.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Statement 2 is incorrect: Syria sits on the coast of the Mediterranean Sea.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Egypt borders the Mediterranean and Red Seas, controlling the Suez Canal corridor. Neither country requires access through the Persian Gulf or the Strait of Hormuz for maritime transport.

UPSC Learning Insight:

Geopolitical chokepoints (like the Straits of Hormuz, Malacca, Bab-el-Mandeb, and the Bosporus) are a recurring focus in UPSC exams. It is vital to track which countries are geographically locked inside these maritime basins.

Question 31

Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries?

Options:

(a) Ecuador

(b) Peru

(d) Colombia

Correct Answer: (a)
Subject Category: International Places in News / Geography
Additional Analysis: Factual Global Designation (2025 Current Affairs)

Why the Correct Option is Right:

The active stratovolcano Tungurahua (also known as the “Black Giant”) is located in the Cordillera eastern region of the Andes in Ecuador. It received official recognition as a UNESCO Global Geopark, drawing international attention to its unique volcanic landscapes, thermal waters, and community-based hazard management systems.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Options (b), (c), and (d) are incorrect: While Peru, Bolivia, and Colombia are Andean countries with active volcanic chains, the Tungurahua Geopark is located entirely within the territory of Ecuador.

UPSC Learning Insight:

When studying international current affairs, pay close attention to new UNESCO World Heritage sites, Biosphere Reserves, and Global Geoparks, particularly those added in the year immediately leading up to the examination.

Question 32

With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct?

It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025.
Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park.
Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.

Options:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Correct Answer: (b)
Subject Category: Environment (Protected Area Networks)
Additional Analysis: Regional Geography & Wildlife Corridors

Why the Correct Option is Right:

Statement 1 is correct: As part of wildlife corridor expansion and regional conservation plans, Madhav National Park received formal notification as a new Tiger Reserve to support tiger reintroduction projects.
Statement 2 is correct: The Sakhya Sagar Lake, an important wetland designated as a Ramsar Site, is an integral ecosystem located inside this protected forest boundary.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Statement 3 is incorrect: Madhav National Park is located entirely within the Shivpuri district of Madhya Pradesh. It serves as an ecological stepping-stone toward Rajasthan’s forests, but its physical boundaries do not cross the state line. This error eliminates options (c) and (d).

UPSC Learning Insight:

UPSC often creates incorrect statements by claiming a well-known national park spans two states when it is actually located entirely within one. Always double-check the precise administrative boundaries of protected areas that appear in the news.

Question 33

With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct?

The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate.
It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon.
Maximum precipitation is between December and May.

Options:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Correct Answer: (b)
Subject Category: Physical Geography (Climatology of India)
Nature of the Question: Conceptual & Empirical Weather Analysis

Why the Correct Option is Right:

Statement 1 is correct: The Andaman and Nicobar Islands feature an equatorial, humid tropical climate moderated by ocean breezes, keeping temperatures uniform year-round.
Statement 2 is correct: Due to their location in the Bay of Bengal, the islands experience a long monsoon season, receiving rainfall from the arriving Southwest monsoon and the subsequent Northeast monsoon winds.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Statement 3 is incorrect: The islands experience their heaviest rainfall during the main monsoon months from June to September/October. The period between December and May includes the drier winter season and early spring months, meaning it does not record the highest precipitation.

UPSC Learning Insight:

Do not confuse regional rainfall patterns. While the Andaman and Nicobar Islands receive rain for much of the year, their peak rainfall aligns with the main Southwest monsoon season rather than the dry winter and spring months.

Question 34

Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India?

Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity
Presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills
Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers

Options:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Correct Answer: (b)
Subject Category: Physical Geography (Geomorphology of India)
Nature of the Question: Conceptual Landform Geomorphology

Why the Correct Option is Right:

Statement 1 is correct: The western margin of the Peninsular Block experienced faulting and subsequent downward tilting during the separation of the Indian plate, leading to the submergence of coastal sections.
Statement 2 is correct: The Peninsular Block is an ancient, highly stable landmass. Long-term erosion has reduced original uplands into residual or relict mountains, as seen in the Eastern Ghats formations like the Veliconda and Mahendragiri hills.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Statement 3 is incorrect: Deep, steep V-shaped valleys are classic indicators of youthful, fast-flowing rivers undergoing active vertical erosion, which is typical of the Himalayan river systems. Peninsular rivers are geologically mature, flowing through broad, shallow, and gently graded valleys.

UPSC Learning Insight:

Keep the classic structural differences between the Himalayan and Peninsular systems clear. Youthful landforms (like V-shaped valleys and gorges) belong to the Himalayas, while old, eroded, and flat features characterize the Peninsular Block.

Question 35

Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of Government of India:

I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure.
II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping along with improved global port rankings.
III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I.
Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework.
Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation.

Options:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Correct Answer: (b)
Subject Category: Economic Infrastructure & Policy Frameworks
Nature of the Question: Logic-based Policy Evaluation

Why the Correct Option is Right:

Relationship 1 is valid: Statement II lists measurable indicators (improved port performance and shipping growth) that confirm the infrastructure strategy outlined in Statement I is working effectively.
Relationship 2 is valid: Sagarmala 2.0 builds upon basic port infrastructure to integrate modern technology, green energy shipping, and supply chain automation, extending the original vision into a long-term development framework.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Relationship 3 is invalid: There is no contradiction between these policies. Statement I provides the foundational infrastructure framework, which naturally evolves into the technology and innovation initiatives highlighted in Statement III.

UPSC Learning Insight:

This type of question evaluates your ability to analyze how policy ideas evolve. Avoid assuming contradictions where there is actually a logical, multi-stage development from basic infrastructure to advanced technology.

Question 36

Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid):

It is an epiphytic orchid.
The species is endemic to North-east India.
It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Correct Answer: (b)
Subject Category: Environment & Flora Biodiversity
Nature of the Question: Factual Flora Profiling

Why the Correct Option is Right:

Statement 1 is correct: Rhynchostylis retusa is an epiphytic plant that grows on tree branches for physical support without taking nutrients from the host tree.
Statement 3 is correct: This orchid—known as Kopou Phool in Assamese—is culturally important and serves as the official State Flower for both Assam and Arunachal Pradesh.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Statement 2 is incorrect: While it grows abundantly in Northeast India, it is also found across the Western Ghats, the rest of India, and throughout Southeast Asia. It is not endemic to Northeast India, which eliminates choices (c) and (d).

UPSC Learning Insight:

Be cautious with claims of endemism. Unless a species is biologically restricted to a specific micro-climate or isolated valley, it is rarely endemic to just one corner of the country.

Question 37

Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct?

Options:

(a) They acted as army fortresses.

(b) They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles.

(d) They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles.

Correct Answer: (c)
Subject Category: Art & Culture / Historical Architecture
Nature of the Question: Factual Architecture Identification

Why the Correct Option is Right:

The Moidams are characteristic vaulted mound burial chambers built by the Tai-Ahom dynasty in Charaideo, Assam. These earth-mound tumuli house the remains of Ahom kings, queens, and royals. Their historical significance led to their inscription as a UNESCO World Heritage Site, making them the first cultural site from Northeast India to receive this specific designation.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Options (a), (b), and (d) are incorrect: Moidams were sacred mortuary landscapes. They were never used as defensive military installations, recreation spaces, or tactical training centers.

UPSC Learning Insight:

Major UNESCO recognitions are high-priority topics. Ensure you understand the specific cultural and architectural purposes of these historical sites.

Question 38

At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2026 in France, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient livelihood and “Blue Transformation”. Which of the following combinations about the “Four Betters” proposed by FAO for “Blue Transformation” is correct?

Options:

(a) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better ocean

(b) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life

(d) Better estuaries, better nutrition, better environment and better mangrove vegetation

Correct Answer: (b)
Subject Category: International Conventions & Environmental Frameworks
Nature of the Question: Current Affairs Global Program Terms

Why the Correct Option is Right:

The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) structures its strategic vision around four core pillars known as the “Four Betters”: Better Production, Better Nutrition, a Better Environment, and a Better Life. This framework guides its sustainable aquaculture and “Blue Transformation” initiatives to protect marine resources while supporting coastal livelihoods.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Options (a), (c), and (d) are incorrect: These options replace “better life” or “better production” with specific ecosystem terms like “better ocean,” “coral reefs,” or “mangrove vegetation.” While these habitats are important, they are not the formal names of the four primary strategic pillars.

UPSC Learning Insight:

Global governance organizations often organize their programs around concise, branded pillars. Memorize these specific core terms accurately, as examiners often swap in plausible-sounding alternatives.

Question 39

Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct?

It is the largest desert lake in the world.
The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert.
The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the ‘Jade Sea’.

Options:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (b)
Subject Category: International Geography (Lakes & Physical Features)
Nature of the Question: Factual Global Geography Map Study

Why the Correct Option is Right:

Statement 1 is correct: Lake Turkana is recognized as the world’s largest permanent desert lake and its largest alkaline water body.
Statement 3 is correct: It is a designated UNESCO World Heritage Site and is famously nicknamed the ‘Jade Sea’ due to its striking turquoise-green color caused by native algae blooms.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Statement 2 is incorrect: Lake Turkana is located within the Great Rift Valley system primarily in northern Kenya, with its northern tip extending into Ethiopia. It is not located in South Sudan or along the fringe of the Sahara Desert, which eliminates choices (c) and (d).

UPSC Learning Insight:

Global geographic features that break records (such as largest, deepest, or saltiest) are common topics in the exam. Always verify the exact country where these features are located.

Question 40

Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India?

Options:

(a) Uttarakhand REDD+ project

(b) ICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North-Eastern Himalayas

(d) Sikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project

Correct Answer: (c)
Subject Category: Environment (Climate Mitigation Initiatives)
Nature of the Question: Factual First-of-its-kind Project

Why the Correct Option is Right:

The Khasi Hills Community REDD+ Project in Meghalaya was the first community-managed forestry initiative in India to receive international certification under the Plan Vivo standard. It works to restore degraded watersheds and protect ancient sacred groves by providing local tribal communities with carbon offset incentives.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Options (a), (b), and (d) are incorrect: While there are several regional carbon offset and conservation projects across the Himalayas, none match the historical milestone of the Khasi Hills project as the first to achieve formal Plan Vivo REDD+ certification in India.

UPSC Learning Insight:

Pioneering environmental projects that combine indigenous community management with international climate certification are important case studies for the exam.

Question 41

Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct?

Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty genes responsible for disease.
Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers of the genetic medicine.
Genetic medicines alter the entire DNA sequence.

Options:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (c)
Subject Category: Science & Technology (Biotechnology & Healthcare)
Nature of the Question: Conceptual Molecular Biology

Why the Correct Option is Right:

Statement 1 is correct: Genetic medicines work by delivering therapeutic nucleic acids to turn off, edit, or replace specific malfunctioning genes that cause disease.
Statement 2 is correct: Because raw genetic material degrades quickly in the human body, delivery vehicles like modified viral vectors (such as adenoviruses) or synthetic Lipid Nanoparticles (LNPs) are required to transport the therapy safely into cells.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Statement 3 is incorrect: These therapies target specific, localized sequences to fix a particular error. They do not alter the entire human DNA genome blueprint, making this claim inaccurate and eliminating option (d).

UPSC Learning Insight:

Science questions often include exaggerated claims in the incorrect statements. Recognizing the difference between a targeted molecular edit and changing the entire genome blueprint is key to answering biotechnology questions correctly.

Question 42

Which of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) used in machine learning is/are correct?

LLMs assign probabilities to the next possible words and then pick the one with the highest probability.
LLMs process data through mathematical optimization to minimise prediction errors.
LLMs produce unbiased outputs.

Options:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (b)
Subject Category: Science & Technology (Artificial Intelligence & Computing)
Nature of the Question: Conceptual Computing Logic

Why the Correct Option is Right:

Statement 1 is correct: LLMs are built as predictive statistical networks. They analyze context to calculate the probability distribution of potential next words (tokens) and generate text based on those values.
Statement 2 is correct: The training process relies on mathematical optimization techniques (such as gradient descent) to adjust internal weights and minimize prediction errors.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Statement 3 is incorrect: LLMs are trained on massive datasets generated by humans. As a result, they frequently reproduce or amplify existing historical and social biases present in their training data, making them susceptible to algorithmic bias.

UPSC Learning Insight:

UPSC frequently tests the real-world limitations of emerging technologies. Claims that an AI system produces entirely “unbiased” or “perfect” outputs are generally incorrect due to the limitations of training data.

Question 43

Which of the following statements with regard to stealth technology is/are correct?

Stealth objects have a very small radar cross-section and are coated with Radar Absorbing Material.
Stealth objects can be detected using specific frequencies.
Stealth objects are coated with metamaterials to increase the scattering of electromagnetic radiation.

Options:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (c)
Subject Category: Science & Technology (Defense Tech Physics)
Nature of the Question: Conceptual Physics Application

Why the Correct Option is Right:

Statement 1 is correct: Stealth design limits visibility by shaping surfaces to redirect incoming radar waves away from the receiver, reducing the Radar Cross-Section (RCS), and using Radar-Absorbing Materials (RAM) to convert radio energy into heat.
Statement 2 is correct: Stealth aircraft are optimized to evade standard high-frequency military tracking systems (like X-band radar). However, they can often be detected by low-frequency radar systems (such as VHF or UHF bands) that operate at different wavelengths.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Statement 3 is incorrect: When advanced metamaterials are used in stealth applications, they are designed to absorb, cancel, or redirect electromagnetic waves smoothly around an object to make it less visible. They are not used to increase scattering, which would make the object easier for radar systems to detect.

UPSC Learning Insight:

Pay close attention to technical verbs in science questions. Understanding whether a material is meant to scatter, absorb, or refract energy is essential for correctly identifying engineering applications.

Question 44

Which of the following statements with regard to Black Boxes used in modern aircrafts is/are correct?

They carry a beacon emitting red light pulses to facilitate underwater detection.
They record both the cockpit voice and flight data.
Their memory units are made using either stainless steel or titanium.

Options:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (b)
Subject Category: Science & Technology / Aviation Instruments
Nature of the Question: Factual & Applied Engineering Features

Why the Correct Option is Right:

Statement 2 is correct: An aviation black box contains two separate recording units: the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) and the Flight Data Recorder (FDR).
Statement 3 is correct: To protect critical flight data during high-impact crashes or intense fires, the internal memory units are housed within an armored shell made of stainless steel or titanium.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Light waves quickly fade and scatter in deep ocean water. To aid underwater recovery, black boxes use an Underwater Locator Beacon (ULB) that emits automated ultrasonic acoustic pulses (pings) instead of visible light signals.

UPSC Learning Insight:

This question highlights the importance of understanding the physical principles behind safety devices. Recognizing how energy moves through different environments—such as sound traveling more effectively than light through deep water—helps clarify why certain engineering choices are made.

Question 45

Which of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct?

It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS).
It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy.
National Green Hydrogen Mission of India aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030.

Options:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (b)
Subject Category: S&T / Environment (Clean Energy Targets)
Nature of the Question: Conceptual Energy Definition & Mission Targets

Why the Correct Option is Right:

Statement 2 is correct: Green hydrogen is defined by its clean production process, using an electric current to split water ( $H_2O$ ) into hydrogen and oxygen within an electrolyzer powered entirely by renewable energy sources like solar or wind power.
Statement 3 is correct: The National Green Hydrogen Mission aims to develop a production capacity of at least 5 MMT per annum by 2030, which is projected to reduce annual greenhouse gas emissions by nearly 50 MMT.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Hydrogen produced by extraction from natural gas paired with carbon capture technologies is classified as Blue Hydrogen, not Green Hydrogen. This distinction eliminates options (a) and (d).

UPSC Learning Insight:

The “color spectrum” of hydrogen (Green, Blue, Grey, Brown) is a fundamental concept in clean energy. Make sure you understand the exact production methods and feedstock sources that define each category.

Question 46

Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India’s space programme:

The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities.
Agnikul Cosmos launched the world’s first flight using a 3D-printed rocket engine.
Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (c)
Subject Category: Science & Technology (Space Technology Current Affairs)
Nature of the Question: Factual Space Sector Developments

Why the Correct Option is Right:

Statement 1 is correct: IN-SPACe was established as an autonomous, single-window regulatory agency under the Department of Space to facilitate, authorize, and guide private sector space activities in India.
Statement 2 is correct: Indian space startup Agnikul Cosmos achieved a major milestone with the launch of their Agnibaan SORTeD mission, which featured the world’s first single-piece, 3D-printed rocket engine (Agnilet) flown successfully.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Statement 3 is incorrect: Skyroot Aerospace focuses on developing its own commercial launch vehicles, such as the Vikram series. Heavy launch systems like the GSLV and its liquid/cryogenic fuel systems are developed directly by ISRO, not by private startups. This error eliminates option (b) and (d).

UPSC Learning Insight:

When tracking private space initiatives, differentiate between a startup’s independent projects (like their own small launch vehicles) and ISRO’s large-scale state programs (like the GSLV).

Question 47

Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct?

They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre.
Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm.
GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attacks.

Options:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (b)
Subject Category: Science & Technology (Applied Defense Engineering)
Nature of the Question: Conceptual Communication Network Logic

Why the Correct Option is Right:

Statement 2 is correct: The primary feature of a drone swarm is its decentralized mesh network, which allows individual drones to communicate directly with each other to maintain formation and share data without relying on a central node.
Statement 3 is correct: GPS Spoofing is an effective countermeasure that transmits false geographic coordinates to the drones’ receivers, overriding their navigation systems to divert or disrupt the swarm.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Operating drone swarms requires reliable, long-range communication links. They typically use standard operational radio frequencies or microwave bands (like 2.4 GHz or 5.8 GHz) rather than the short-range, easily blocked Terahertz frequency band.

UPSC Learning Insight:

Make sure you understand the practical constraints of communication frequencies. High-frequency bands like Terahertz offer high data speeds but suffer from limited range and weak signal penetration, making them ill-suited for long-range tactical field communications.

Question 48

Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct?

It is a part of the Human Genome Project.
The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India.
Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population.

Options:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (b)
Subject Category: Science & Technology (Biotech National Initiatives)
Nature of the Question: Factual National Mission Profile

Why the Correct Option is Right:

Statement 2 is correct: The project is an indigenous initiative fully supported and funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT).
Statement 3 is correct: The core objective of the project was to sequence 10,000 Indian genomes to create a comprehensive reference database that maps the unique genetic diversity and health vulnerabilities across different population groups in India.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The international Human Genome Project (HGP) was a separate global effort that concluded in 2003. GenomeIndia is an independent, national project launched later to focus specifically on the Indian population. This error eliminates choices (c) and (d).

UPSC Learning Insight:

Differentiate between old international research milestones and newer, country-specific scientific missions. While they share similar naming styles, they serve distinct historical and strategic purposes.

Question 49

Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct?

It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits.
Its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in academic and national R&D institutes across India.

Options:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (c)
Subject Category: Science & Technology (National Technology Missions)
Nature of the Question: Factual Policy Specifications

Why the Correct Option is Right:

Statement 1 is correct: The National Quantum Mission is designed to develop intermediate-scale quantum computers with capacities ranging from 50 to 1000 physical qubits over its implementation timeline.
Statement 2 is correct: The mission’s operational framework is built around four specialized Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs): Quantum Computing, Quantum Communication, Quantum Sensing & Metrology, and Quantum Materials & Devices.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Options (a) and (b) are incorrect: Both assertions accurately describe the technical goals and institutional structure of the mission, making “Both 1 and 2” the correct choice.

UPSC Learning Insight:

For major national technology missions (like Quantum, AI, or Semiconductor missions), ensure you memorize both their technical targets (such as qubit ranges) and their administrative structure (such as hub frameworks).

Question 50

Which of the following statements with regard to India’s Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct?

It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India.
Matsya-6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep sea exploration.
Samudrayaan is a project under this mission.

Options:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (b)
Subject Category: Science & Technology / Geography (Oceanography Policies)
Nature of the Question: Factual Nodal Ministry & Engineering Specs

Why the Correct Option is Right:

Statement 2 is correct: The MATSYA-6000 is an indigenous, crewed deep-ocean submersible designed to transport a crew of three people safely to extreme ocean depths.
Statement 3 is correct: Samudrayaan is the official name of the flagship crewed exploration project operating under the broader Deep Ocean Mission framework.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Deep Ocean Mission was launched and is managed by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), which coordinates India’s deep-sea exploration activities, rather than the Ministry of Ports. This error eliminates options (c) and (d).

UPSC Learning Insight:

UPSC frequently tests whether you know the correct nodal ministry for specialized scientific programs. Avoid assuming a project belongs to a ministry based on keywords like “shipping” or “ports” alone; look for the agency that manages the underlying scientific research.

Comprehensive Strategic Review of Questions 26–50

Overall Difficulty Distribution

The second quadrant of the 2026 paper shows a clear emphasis on applied engineering, regional spatial awareness, and data policy evaluation:

Difficulty Category	Number of Questions	Direct Examples
Easy	4	Question 30 (Strait of Hormuz), Question 37 (Ahom Moidams Burial)
Moderate	14	Question 26 (Boundary exceptions), Question 45 (Green vs. Blue Hydrogen profiles)
Difficult	7	Question 35 (Sagarmala policy evaluation logic), Question 43 (Stealth metamaterial physics)

Most Important Topics & Recurrent Themes

[UPSC Applied Tech & Map Matrix]
  ├── International Choke Points (Persian Gulf entries, Horn of Africa lakes)
  ├── Environmental Accreditations (Oeko-Tex Standard, Plan Vivo REDD+ scales)
  ├── Material Engineering (RAM coatings, CSMU titanium armor housings)
  └── National Technology Roadmaps (NQM qubit matrices, Genomedb target counts)

Common Mistakes Made by Aspirants

Overlooking Negative Prompts: Missing the word “NOT” in Question 26 can lead to selecting an incorrect combination of state boundary features.
Confusing Tech Definitions: Mixing up similar technical terms, such as mistaking the production process of Blue Hydrogen (natural gas with carbon capture) for Green Hydrogen (water electrolysis powered by renewables).
Assuming Universal Endemism: Assuming that because a rare plant or animal features prominently in a state’s cultural traditions, it must be completely endemic to that single province.

How to Improve Your UPSC Prelims Elimination Skills

Identify Overly Broad Engineering Claims: Be skeptical of statements that claim an emerging technology is completely flawless, such as describing an AI model as entirely “unbiased.” Recognizing these real-world limitations helps you quickly eliminate incorrect options.
Verify Biological Mechanisms: When a statement attributes an active behavior to an object—like tracking technology actively steering a migratory bird—verify if it confuses human observation tools with natural animal instincts.
Analyze Nodal Responsibilities: Do not rely on simple keyword associations to guess a government ministry. Double-check whether a project’s core focus is commercial infrastructure or scientific research to identify the correct managing agency.

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

How should I prepare for map questions based on international geography?

Focus your map study on major geopolitical chokepoints, international trade lanes, and regions experiencing conflict or environmental changes. Track the specific countries surrounding key maritime basins like the Persian Gulf, Red Sea, and Mediterranean Sea.

Why does UPSC place so much emphasis on environmental certifications?

Eco-labels and sustainability certifications link domestic industries with international trade frameworks, environmental policy, and sustainable development goals, making them an important area of study for the exam.

What is the best way to study emerging technologies for Science & Technology?

Focus on understanding the foundational engineering principles and real-world limitations of new technologies. Avoid just memorizing news headlines; learn the basic science behind how systems like quantum computing, gene therapy, and stealth materials actually operate.

How can I avoid errors when a question asks for “not correct” statements?

Circle or highlight the phrases “NOT correct” or “INCORRECT” as soon as you read the prompt. Write down a clear reminder next to the options to ensure you are selecting the inaccurate statements rather than the true ones.

How deeply should I study national technology missions?

Make sure you understand their key components: the managing ministry, the long-term strategic goals, the total funding timeline, and the specific technical benchmarks they aim to achieve.

Conclusion & Strategic Guidance

Questions 26 through 50 of the UPSC Prelims 2026 GS Paper 1 demonstrate that success on the exam requires a clear understanding of practical scientific principles and precise spatial awareness. The questions move away from abstract theory to focus on real-world applications, such as how clean energy is certified, how international waterways are navigated, and how national technology missions are structured.

As you continue your preparation, focus on identifying the connections between different subjects. Analyze how government policies rely on specific technologies, and observe how geographical features shape regional ecosystems. Keep refining your analytical skills, study with precision, and look out for Part 3 (Questions 51 to 75), where we will examine the core sections of Indian Polity, Macroeconomic Indicators, and International Relations!